[FOM] Fact and opinion in F.O.M.
Timothy Y. Chow
tchow at math.princeton.edu
Thu Dec 26 16:58:36 EST 2019
Joe Shipman wrote:
> (1) all the arithmetical consequences of all the axioms that have ever
> been proposed appear to be compatible with each other.
> (2) this is completely untrue for statements of higher type.
Okay, how about the following suggested definition of "fact"?
(*) A mathematical statement X is a fact if no axiom that has ever
been seriously proposed (or ever will be seriously proposed)
implies not-X.
This stays closer to your statement (1) above and steers clear of my
objections to your "permanent disagreement" formulation.
If we accept, as I do, that V = L has been "seriously proposed" as an
axiom, then ~CH is not a fact. Off the top of my head, I can't think of a
seriously proposed axiom that implies ~CH, but maybe someone else can; if
there is one, then that would mean that CH is not a fact either.
(Freiling's axiom of symmetry, maybe?) If neither X nor not-X is a fact
then we could say that X is not a "matter of fact" (and similarly not-X is
not a matter of fact).
Then your question becomes whether there exist any non-arithmetical facts.
By the way, there seems to be some similarity between your concept of
"fact" and Feferman's concept of a "definite mathematical problem," as in
his paper, "Is the continuum hypothesis a definite mathematical problem?"
(Though Feferman seems to take a different direction from what you're
proposing.)
Tim
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