A question from set theory, book by Thomas Jech, third millennium edition: on page 386, exercise 20.10 why we should prove it for 3, when proved for 1 implies V_kappa <_n V for all natural n? Thank you, Jan Pax -------------- next part -------------- An HTML attachment was scrubbed... URL: </pipermail/fom/attachments/20130103/7db7bb15/attachment.html>