FOM: Re: Arbitrary Objects

[Kanovei]

Date: Thu, 31 Jan 2002 9:58:12 +0100
From: <P.T.M.Rood at ph.vu.nl> (P.T.M. Rood)

> (begin of citation) 

>Can anybody explain why 
>*change the value of the register named "x" to an object of type F*
>is better than 
>*let x satisfy F* ? 

The question seems besides the mark. I proposed the former
to be the semantic interpretation of the latter. And I explained
its virtues in my previous message.

> (end of citation)

Example:

1) let x be a linear operator on a Banach space 

2) change the value of the register named "x" to a 
   linear operator on a Banach space

Please explain  
how  2) can be *the semantic interpretation of* 1) ? 
Does 2) have any more meaning in any sense than 1) ? 
Where the register "x" is and how to change it to a 
linear operator ? 
To which exactly operator we change the register "x" 
whatever it be ? 
To "arbitrary"? 

V.Kanovei