FOM: David Ross's comment on the Banach-Tarski paradox

[Stephen G Simpson]

To: John Baldwin

John,

I find your comment just as objectionable as David Ross's!  Your
comment exhibits a lack of precision.  *Of course* the Banach-Tarski
paradox has a geometrical component: it's stated in terms of spheres
and rigid motions!  But what does F_2 have to do with it?  Why can't
you guys spell out what you mean?  What's wrong with being articulate?
I have to wonder whether unclear writing reflects unclear thought.

-- Steve